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ccb056
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- Joined: January 14th, 2004, 11:36 pm
- Location: Texas
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by ccb056 »
a few days ago I can accross the equation: e^(2pi*i)-1=0
therefore
e^(2pi*i)=1
ln(e^(2pi*i))=ln(1)
2pi*i=0
since 2 and pi are both constants, you divide bot out and are left with: i=0
but 0 is a real number
but i is an imaginary number
how can an imiganary number be the same as a real number?
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The_Man
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- Joined: January 25th, 2004, 11:57 pm
- Location: Big Easy
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by The_Man »
ur solving the equasion is wrong, the reason it works out is because 1^i = 1
Money can buy what you don't have.